[Q59-Q81] Certification Training for VMCE2021 Exam Dumps Test Engine [2021]

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Certification Training for VMCE2021 Exam Dumps Test Engine [2021]

Nov 14, 2021 Step by Step Guide to Prepare for VMCE2021 Exam

NEW QUESTION 59
Which of the following scenarios properly applies the 3-2-1 rule to backup jobs?

  • A. Use backup jobs to back up directly to tape; ship the tapes off site
  • B. Use a backup job to back up to a local repository; perform a backup copy job to a repository in another location
  • C. Use a backup job to back up to a Scale-out Backup Repository configured with capacity tier using AWS S3 and enable move mode
  • D. Use a backup job to back up to a local repository; perform a backup copy job to the same repository

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 60
Which procedure is used to finalize replica failback?

  • A. Commit failback
  • B. Quick Migration
  • C. Replica failback does not need to be finalized
  • D. VMware Storage vMotion
  • E. Migrate to production

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 61
You fail back a VM replica to the original location. Which of the following requirements needs to be met to be able perform quick rollback during a failback of a replica?

  • A. Indexing must be enabled for the original VM
  • B. Perform failback to VM within the same subnet
  • C. The VM replica must be created with the "Use Changed Block Tracking data" option enabled
  • D. The VM replica must have access to the repository where the full backup of the VM resides

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 62
Which of the following is required to enable tape parallel processing?

  • A. Two tape jobs are processed at the same time.
  • B. The source repository for the tape job is a scale out backup repository.
  • C. The tape library has multiple drives.
  • D. The tape drive has multiple tapes.

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 63
Which is the mount server component used?

  • A. When the remote backup repository is a CIPS share
  • B. When there are multiple backup servers
  • C. When backing up to tape at a remote site
  • D. When restoring files or application items with Veeam Explorers

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 64
What is Veeam vPower NFS Service used for?

  • A. It is used to send data to the original location or to a new location specified by the user when restoring It.
  • B. It allows Veeam Backup & Replication to present VM files in a native format to an ESXi host, from a compressed and deduplicated backup file.
  • C. It continuously checks the configuration settings of jobs and starts them in accordance with their schedules.
  • D. It is used to mount a compressed and deduplicated backup file directly to the backup server and perform file and item level restore.

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 65
Which of the following options describe the Veeam Data Mover Service function most accurately? Choose two options.

  • A. Reduces load on the network and helps speed up restores
  • B. Analyzes the system and installs and upgrades necessary components and services, depending on the role selected for the server
  • C. Copies VM files
  • D. Performs data compression, deduplication and data transfer

Answer: C,D

 

NEW QUESTION 66
Which transport mode uses the VMware vSphere Hot-Add feature to attach the virtual disks of a source VM to the backup proxy VM?

  • A. Network
  • B. Direct SAN access
  • C. Direct NFS access
  • D. vPower
  • E. Virtual Appliance

Answer: E

 

NEW QUESTION 67
You want to deploy an On-Demand Sandbox. While creating the application group, which sources can be used to add virtual machines to the Application Group? (Choose three.)

  • A. Storage Shapshot
  • B. Backup on Backup Repository
  • C. Replica on non-Cloud Connect VMware vSphere host
  • D. Replica on Cloud Connect VMware vSphere host
  • E. Backup in Cloud Repository
  • F. Backup Copy in Backup repository

Answer: A,B,C

 

NEW QUESTION 68
Which storage optimization option uses a block size of 512 KB?

  • A. LAN target
  • B. Local target
  • C. Local target (large blocks)
  • D. WAN target

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 69
When configuring a SureBackup job, what are some of the criteria for adding servers to an application group?
(Choose two.)

  • A. VMs cannot be added to an application group twice
  • B. VMs must be running the same OS version
  • C. VMs must have at least one valid restore point
  • D. VM backups must reside on the same repository
  • E. VMs cannot be encrypted

Answer: A,C

 

NEW QUESTION 70
An Availability engineer has configured Veeam Backup & Replication to replicate a mission critical VM to a DR site on an hourly basis and with 24 restore points. The production site has suffered a storage failure and needs to bring up the mission critical machine as soon as possible. Which step should the Availability engineer do next?

  • A. Failback of the replica VM
  • B. Failover to the replica VM
  • C. Create a failover plan
  • D. Planned failover to me replica VM

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 71
Which Veeam Backup & Replication functionality allows a VM to be powered on directly from a backup file?

  • A. Instant VM Recovery
  • B. Planned failover
  • C. Full VM Recovery
  • D. Item-Level Recovery using Veeam Explorer

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 72
A virtual machine in your environment has been hit by a virus. You need to restore the virtual machine as fast as possible. At the same time, you need to make sure that any dormant virus on the backed up virtual machine is detected. What restore method should you use when recovering to a new location?

  • A. Instant VM Recovery with "secure restore"
  • B. Instant VM Recovery with "staged restore"
  • C. SureBackup
  • D. Virtual disk restore

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 73
Staged Restore is available for which type of restore mode?

  • A. Full VM Restore
  • B. Virtual Disk Restore
  • C. Object-Level Restore
  • D. File-Level Restore

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 74
Figure A shows the backup files on a Scale-out Backup Repository (SOBR) created by a single Veeam backup job. The SOBR is configured to offload to capacity tier in move mode. If the offload was completed successfully, what will remain on the performance extents for the files uploaded to the capacity tier?

  • A. VBM files (metadata only)
  • B. VIB and VBK files (data blocks only)
  • C. VIB and VBK files (metadata only)
  • D. VBK files (metadata and data)
  • E. VIB files (metadata and data)

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 75
It the Backup Administrator has to perform a backup over a high-latency, low bandwidth network link, how can the disruptions to the backup process be avoided?

  • A. By adding additional WAN accelerators to the target site.
  • B. By making a backup locally and utilizing WAN accelerators for a backup copy Job.
  • C. By adjusting the compression and deduplication settings for this Job.
  • D. By making a direct backup using WAN accelerator.

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 76
Which of the following is an additional database restore option in the Veeam Explorer for Microsoft SQL?

  • A. SIMPLE
  • B. RECOVERY
  • C. ACTIVE
  • D. NORECOVERY

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 77
A company has the following requirements:
Mission-critical VMs: hourly replication to disaster recovery site, daily backups of these VMs should be available at the disaster recovery site when required, the mission critical applications need to be available within 20 minutes.
Business-important VMs: daily backups should be stored at the disaster recovery site. When required, the business-important applications need to be available within four hours.
Define the RPO and RTO for the company's disaster recovery site.

  • A. Mission-critical VMs: RPO = 60 minutes, RTO = 20 minutes; business-important VMs: RPO = 24 hours, RTO = four hours
  • B. Mission-critical VMs: RPO = 24 hours, RTO = four hours; business-important VMs: RPO = 24 hours, RTO = four hours
  • C. Mission-critical VMs: RPO = 24 hours, RTO = 20 minutes; business-important VMs: RPO = 24 hours, RTO
    = four hours
  • D. Mission-critical VMs: RPO = 60 minutes, RTO = one hour; business-important VMs: RPO = 60 minutes, RTO = four hours

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 78
Veeam ONE has been installed in the typical data collection mode and historical data is the installation default. A customer is looking at performance charts in Veeam ONE Monitor.
When troubleshooting a performance event from two days ago, what will they see?

  • A. Aggregated data every two hours
  • B. Data does not exist
  • C. Aggregated data every five minutes
  • D. Raw data every 20 seconds

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/one/deployment/data_collection_modes.html?ver=100

 

NEW QUESTION 79
The advanced installation scenario requires installing the Veeam ONE Server component (server part) on one machine and installing the Veeam ONE Web UI component (client part) on another machine.

  • A. False
  • B. True

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 80
Veeam Backup & Replication supports which of the following NetApp Data ONTAP modes?

  • A. Only NatApp EDGE in 7-Mode
  • B. Clustered Data ONTAP only
  • C. Both 7-mode and Clustered Data ONTAP
  • D. 7-mode only

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 81
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