PRMIA PRM Certification - Exam III: Risk Management Frameworks, Operational Risk, Credit Risk, Counterparty Risk, Market Risk, ALM, FTP - 2015 Edition - 8008 Exam Practice Test

What is the combined VaR of two securities that are perfectly positively correlated.
Correct Answer: D
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Which of the following statements are true:
I. Liquidity risks during time of crisis may be exacerbated by large collateral calls continuing over a period of time.
II. Stress tests are always separately modeled from VaR computations which cannot deal with stress scenarios of the kind considered in stress tests.
III. A maximum loss scenario considers the maximum possible loss given a 'plausibility constraint' that is based upon the joint probability of such a loss happening
Correct Answer: D
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The generalized Pareto distribution, when used in the context of operational risk, is used to model:
Correct Answer: A
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Which of the following are valid approaches to calculating potential future exposure (PFE) for counterparty risk:
I. Add a percentage of the notional to the mark-to-market value
II. Monte Carlo simulation
III. Maximum Likelihood Estimation
IV. Parametric Estimation
Correct Answer: B
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A cumulative accuracy plot:
Correct Answer: B
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Which of the following formulae describes Marginal VaR for a portfolio p, where V_i is the value of the i-th asset in the portfolio? (All other notation and symbols have their usual meaning.) A)

B)

C)

D)
All of the above
Correct Answer: C
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The sensitivity (delta) of a portfolio to a single point move in the value of the S&P500 is $100. If the current level of the S&P500 is 2000, and has a one day volatility of 1%, what is the value-at-risk for this portfolio at the 99% confidence and a horizon of 10 days? What is this method of calculating VaR called?
Correct Answer: A
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In setting confidence levels for VaR estimates for internal limit setting, it is generally desirable:
Correct Answer: A
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